My brother-in-law recently passed away. His girlfriend had been unable to reach him by phone, so broke into his house and found his body. He was 51. They are not doing an autopsy. I thought they always did one to determine the cause of death. Is that incorrect?
I don't think there was foul play involved at all. I was just thinking that if it was a hereditary medical condition, the rest of the family would want to know. Everyone seems to be content saying that it must have been a heart attack, even though he had no previous indication of heart disease. Is this weird?
I don't think there was foul play involved at all. I was just thinking that if it was a hereditary medical condition, the rest of the family would want to know. Everyone seems to be content saying that it must have been a heart attack, even though he had no previous indication of heart disease. Is this weird?